Bailing out the Euro

[captain cojones]

I can only speak for France. Any person who has been claiming contributions based JSA (Job Seekers Allowance) in this country for at least 4 weeks can have 3 months of the equivalent benefit paid to them in France if they wish to search for a job in France. I can't for the life of me work out why any unemployed French person would give up his benefits (up to 90% of his last salary) for £60 or so quid a week JSA, can you?

 

Exactly the same here.

Brits come and look for work on that basis.

[captain cojones]

Are you saying that any non british person who has never paid a penny in tax or NI in this country are entitled to exactly the same benefits as a person who has spent a lifetime paying into the system ? and vise versa in Spain. or any other european country.

 

I know we have the british people who have never paid a penny in contributions, BTW

 

Hmm, im saying that a person has contributed nothing they get nothing. Be they Spanish or British.

 

Equally, if a Spanish or British have contributed the same amount, they get the same benefits.

In other words equal treatment.

 

(Which is what the European commission is asking, no more than that)

 

Do you think the British should get nothing or less than a Spaniard if he/she has done the same work?

[corydoras]

Exactly the same here.

Brits come and look for work on that basis.

I thought it would be the same in Spain. I thought it was the same all over the EU and the EEA & Switzerland too.

[Andrew]

Let me get this right before i comment further.

 

If a Spaniard has worked in his mother country and paid his dues, he can come to this country when he has paid nothing into the system, he can claim benefits just like a person, EG be him/her, Scottish, English, Welsh or Irish who HAS paid his her dues ?

 

Am i understanding that ? correctly

[corydoras]

Hmm, im saying that a person has contributed nothing they get nothing. Be they Spanish or British.

 

Equally, if a Spanish or British have contributed the same amount, they get the same benefits.

In other words equal treatment.

 

(Which is what the European commission is asking, no more than that)

 

Do you think the British should get nothing or less than a Spaniard if he/she has done the same work?

Same in France, no contributions, no benefits. Doesn't matter if you are French or English. I don't think you'll get an answer to your question though Dave.

[corydoras]

Let me get this right before i comment further.

 

If a Spaniard has worked in his mother country and paid his dues, he can come to this country when he has paid nothing into the system, he can claim benefits just like a person, EG be him/her, Scottish, English, Welsh or Irish who HAS paid his her dues ?

 

Am i understanding that ? correctly

For 3 months he can yes. It's a reciprocal agreement.

 

An English person who has worked and paid his dues in this country can claim benefits for 3 months in France or Spain or any other country in the EU, the EEA and I think that although Switzerland is not in either the EU nor the EEA they are signatories to the same agreement so he could claim them in Switzerland too.

Edited September 30, 2011 by corydoras

[captain cojones]

Let me get this right before i comment further.

 

If a Spaniard has worked in his mother country and paid his dues, he can come to this country when he has paid nothing into the system, he can claim benefits just like a person, EG be him/her, Scottish, English, Welsh or Irish who HAS paid his her dues ?

 

Am i understanding that ? correctly

 

No you are not understanding that correctly!

 

I dont know how i can put it clearer to be honest.

 

A British person is treated exactly the same as a Spanish person in Spain.

 

IF he has paid into the system, he gets money out. Exactly the same as a Spaniard.

 

If he has NOT paid into the system, he gets nothing. same as a Spaniard.

 

If You as a country decide to pay everyone, whether they have contributed or not, that is entirely down to the British.

 

What the link (that you posted)..says, is that they cannot discriminate in Britain. If they want to pay people that haven't contributed, then that's up to them but they cant discriminate on racial grounds.

 

Hence my question....(Again)...Do you think it would be ok for the British to be refused benefit that they are entitled to here in Spain....Just because they are British?? In other words on racial grounds?

 

A yes or no will do.

 

Edit, Cory is answering a different question. He is absolutely correct.

Edited September 30, 2011 by captain cojones

[Andrew]

unemployed French person would give up his benefits (up to 90% of his last salary) for £60 or so quid a week JSA, can you?

 

And does that apply to any foreign national, the same amount of per centage of last salary ?

[captain cojones]

For 3 months he can yes. It's a reciprocal agreement.

 

An English person who has worked and paid his dues in this country can claim benefits for 3 months in France or Spain or any other country in the EU, the EEA and I think that although Switzerland is not in either the EU nor the EEA they are signatories to the same agreement so he could claim them in Switzerland too.

 

Part of one of the the basic agreements of EU employment law. Most British dont know about things like this though because their main source of information is UK tabloid newspapers.

 

I get asked regularly "how do i get a work permit"?............................. :headhurt:

[corydoras]

And does that apply to any foreign national, the same amount of per centage of last salary ?

Yes if you worked in France and lost your job through no fault of your own you would get about 90% for the first six months. A married working class couple living in France with three or four children will pay virtually no Income Tax.